Tim Hicks (Texas)
Elite Member
- Joined
- Jan 15, 2002
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- Texas
I have never seen this discussed on the forum, but this one of my pet peeves from reviews I have done.
Who taught appraisers that the predominant value on the URAR and 2055's has to be exactly the appraised value?
It seems that 9 times out of 10 the "reported" predominant value is always the exact same number as the appraised value. Wouldn't this fall under the heading of producing a misleading report? I have always put a range for predominant value and never been questioned.
It sure looks shaky under review when the home is grossly over appraised and the comps from the area are all much lower, but somehow the predominant value is exactly what the over valued property is supposedly worth.
My attempt to bring this site back to an appraiser's forum with appraisal issues.
Who taught appraisers that the predominant value on the URAR and 2055's has to be exactly the appraised value?
It seems that 9 times out of 10 the "reported" predominant value is always the exact same number as the appraised value. Wouldn't this fall under the heading of producing a misleading report? I have always put a range for predominant value and never been questioned.
It sure looks shaky under review when the home is grossly over appraised and the comps from the area are all much lower, but somehow the predominant value is exactly what the over valued property is supposedly worth.
My attempt to bring this site back to an appraiser's forum with appraisal issues.