J Grant
Elite Member
- Joined
- Dec 9, 2003
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- Florida
No, OP's scenario: Market trend: steady 24% increase over the last year. Comp 1 closed on the effective date 100k, Comp 2 sold one month ago for 98k Comp 3 sold 3 months ago 96k Comp 4 pending at 102k.
100k opinion vs 102k opinion. What's 2% off? Do the math.
A review does not ask about a 100k opinion vs a 102k opinion. A review asks about the quality, credibility, accuracy of an appraisal. So whether an appraisal had a value of 100k or 102k , ( or any other number ) the review would focus on how the value was developed.
OP" Usually my response is - appraisers do one of two things 1. Stick you with the highest most recent sale or 2. Use some other less similar “comps” that are really not similar, but expand the range or use other slightly less similar “comps” and fudge the adjustments to come in at the supported pending prices..."
It's not about 2%, 100k vs 102k, it;s about how appraiser got there. The italics above are from the OP post #1. If an appraiser fudges adjustments and or uses less similar comps to opine 102k THAT ( the fudged adjusmtnet,s lousy comps )is the what the review finds-if an appraiser did not fudge adjustments or use less similar sales to reach 100k. , THAT is why the reviewer would agree with 100k. Get it?
The number hitter tricks (fudging adjustments, relying on /using less similar sales rather than more similar sales , ignoring or minimizing condition issues, are the same number hitter tricks whether to push value by 2 k or by 20k or by 200k.
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