J Grant
Elite Member
- Joined
- Dec 9, 2003
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- Florida
There is NO guidance , advisory opinion, or USPAP statement referencing an appraiser can't be precise enough to be a small % off a SC price. If such a link or source or advisory FAW exists that says that, please provide it. I have not seen that anywhere except here on the board. Luckily I trained with two very good SRA's who never mentioned such a ridiculous thing.
It is circular logic meant to serve itself.. An appraiser is not good enough to be "that precise" to be 2.5 % off a SC price, because a SC price at AL terms is a good indicator of MV, and it is a good indicator of MV because an appraiser is not good to be that precise to be off it by a small percent. Okay, send in the clowns!
An appraiser's opinion of MV is just as precise at 350k as it is at 341k. Either one is a finite specific dollar amount. Either one has to be well supported and credible, apart from what the SC price is.
I can see the argument that if appraiser opined 349k, or even 348k, that with an AL contract, make the SC price of 350k the reconciliation point. But when a relatively substantial $ comes into play, and to market participants at this price range,, especially in FHA when buyers are cash poor, anything over 2k is substantial (to them).
I am all for coming in at SC price when the preponderance of market evidence leads to that. Or even in a close tie, when enough market credible support leads to the SC price as reconciliation point. But there are times when the OMV most credible $ amount is best supported as a $ amount below the sC price , and that can be a relatively low percent off.
Since the SC price is not an official MV benchmark, and even you guys admit it can't be a target, by what logical rational is a OMV being 2.5 % off a SC price "wrong"?
It is circular logic meant to serve itself.. An appraiser is not good enough to be "that precise" to be 2.5 % off a SC price, because a SC price at AL terms is a good indicator of MV, and it is a good indicator of MV because an appraiser is not good to be that precise to be off it by a small percent. Okay, send in the clowns!
An appraiser's opinion of MV is just as precise at 350k as it is at 341k. Either one is a finite specific dollar amount. Either one has to be well supported and credible, apart from what the SC price is.
I can see the argument that if appraiser opined 349k, or even 348k, that with an AL contract, make the SC price of 350k the reconciliation point. But when a relatively substantial $ comes into play, and to market participants at this price range,, especially in FHA when buyers are cash poor, anything over 2k is substantial (to them).
I am all for coming in at SC price when the preponderance of market evidence leads to that. Or even in a close tie, when enough market credible support leads to the SC price as reconciliation point. But there are times when the OMV most credible $ amount is best supported as a $ amount below the sC price , and that can be a relatively low percent off.
Since the SC price is not an official MV benchmark, and even you guys admit it can't be a target, by what logical rational is a OMV being 2.5 % off a SC price "wrong"?