- Joined
- Mar 11, 2008
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- Texas
To make sure I'm understanding: are you saying homeownership wealth is NOT responsible for at least some (if not most) of the wealth gap? It's an extremely complex issue involving many facets. For instance, the homeownership rate gap between whites and blacks is ~ 40%. Is that attributable to past structural discrimination? I believe so, but WHICH actions in particular are responsible? Unequal access to education? Unequal access to higher paying positions? The fact that there is an inherent wealth gap - in addition to - and separate from - the home equity gap? I'm not arguing for modification of any of the approaches to value. I'm stating as a fact that current homeownership rates are influenced by past discriminatory actions and the current home equity wealth gap is influenced by past discriminatory actions. I'm also arguing for meaningful actions that attempt to bridge those gaps. IMO, that does not involve creating a new approach to value or modifying existing approaches. It involves changing market participants' perception(s) of those blighted areas. Instead of $50k 1st time homeowner grants, let's create more green space in blighted areas. Let's increase the quality of schools in those areas. Let's incentivize business owners - small and large - to do business in those areas. That's what generates property wealth.Did those boomer babies have more opportunities to generate wealth during their lifetime? Yep. The makeup of housing markets is evidence of that, but it is not responsible for it. Stock market wealth is also heavily tilted toward older whites.
Of course - to GH's point - one unintended consequence of bridging that gap is that you'll now displace many of the folks you were trying to assist.
It's just a terribly complicated issue, but reparations - however you want to dress them up - are not a viable long term solution.