Caterina Platt
Senior Member
- Joined
- Jan 17, 2002
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- New Mexico
Do you ever find this fixation annoying and irrelavant?
Example 1) You explain in your sales comparison comments that the subject has a larger floorplan for it's development. You have a couple sales in your immediate development, one slightly smaller, one larger and an active that is similar size. You also offer another closed sale similar size from a nearby competing development, again explaining that it is the best additional data for a larger dwelling of this type/age, etc. in the subject's market area.
Underwriter response: you must make a comment why the subject's value is greater than 25% higher than the predominant value.
Example 2) Market area is a broad mixture of dwellings (discussed in the market comments) and the hi/low/predom range is $91K, 1 mill and predom at $282K. Your subject value is $193K and you have 4 closed sales and 1 pending comparable all selling within 90 days marketing time, within the immediate and surrounding subdivisions, and bracketing all features. Adjustment percentages are minimal, and all dwellings are similar age and very similar in value range.
Underwriter response: comment on subject's marketability as it is below the predominant value for the area.
Example 1) Duh! We told you it was larger for the location?!
Example 2) Ahem. Is not the 'marketability' of a dwelling like the subject illustrated for you in Sales 1-4 and the pending???!!! How's about the 9 actives and 17 closed similar dwellings noted on the top of page 2? They range from $145,000 to $207,000.
Sorry, this just gives the implication that all dwellings must be average, middle of the road or else something has got to be wrong. When you have ample sales data, minimal adjustments, comments where needed, minimal distance from the subject, etc., why this fixation with predominant pricing?
Example 1) You explain in your sales comparison comments that the subject has a larger floorplan for it's development. You have a couple sales in your immediate development, one slightly smaller, one larger and an active that is similar size. You also offer another closed sale similar size from a nearby competing development, again explaining that it is the best additional data for a larger dwelling of this type/age, etc. in the subject's market area.
Underwriter response: you must make a comment why the subject's value is greater than 25% higher than the predominant value.
Example 2) Market area is a broad mixture of dwellings (discussed in the market comments) and the hi/low/predom range is $91K, 1 mill and predom at $282K. Your subject value is $193K and you have 4 closed sales and 1 pending comparable all selling within 90 days marketing time, within the immediate and surrounding subdivisions, and bracketing all features. Adjustment percentages are minimal, and all dwellings are similar age and very similar in value range.
Underwriter response: comment on subject's marketability as it is below the predominant value for the area.
Example 1) Duh! We told you it was larger for the location?!
Example 2) Ahem. Is not the 'marketability' of a dwelling like the subject illustrated for you in Sales 1-4 and the pending???!!! How's about the 9 actives and 17 closed similar dwellings noted on the top of page 2? They range from $145,000 to $207,000.
Sorry, this just gives the implication that all dwellings must be average, middle of the road or else something has got to be wrong. When you have ample sales data, minimal adjustments, comments where needed, minimal distance from the subject, etc., why this fixation with predominant pricing?
Love it.