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Waivers, huh?

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Nobody
What about all of those sales where the borrower brought cash to the table to make up the difference between the appraised value and sale price. Is that "disclosed". You can only confirm that if you can confirm that through one of the parties involved.
What about them? The appraisal value is on record as the MV lower than the SC price and the borrower makes up the difference in cash

Vs a wavier possibly overvaluing property.
 
Default rates and effect on prices re two different issues

Loans with higher equity and better borrower credit and income have a lower default rate - waivers do not change that, they just will replace appraisals for many of these loans - and with that, the default risk is 100% put on the borrower for these loans because a waiver lets the lender have freedom from reps and warranties for the collateral value/valution. lower risk is not the same as no risk, so overall, now the lenders have less responsibility for the value of these loans and the tax payers have 100%. Idk why this was allowed or why someone defends it -

Affect on prices, if any, would need to be tracked, and the fact that it is not disclosed when a waiver is used with tax records or MLS will make that impossible. A waiver is granted using conventional financing ( not sure if it is allowed in FHA ) it is used as conventional financing but not distinguished vs when an appraisal was used -

Are waivers allowed for 90% financing? I remember reading in some cases they are but I might be mistaken on that. Initially they were for refi, then they expanded to purchases so the pattern is there for expansion - probably until the risk envelope is pushed to the breaking point as with predatory loans /exotic loans prior that is the pattern -and history - the more things change the more they stay the same as the saying goes.
 

The addresses and sales prices are not revealed for these properties, so how could anyone running statistics or analysis be able to tell anything wrt to that?
thanks for posting it though

I can not tell from the above what total 5 of loans are made using waivers-

I realize they are not used for high LTV and could care less about it other than that it sticks appraisres with valuing the higher risk properties and borrowers - then they'll claim loans using appraisals have a higher risk.
 
Nobody

What about them? The appraisal value is on record as the MV lower than the SC price and the borrower makes up the difference in cash

Vs a wavier possibly overvaluing property.
So what. Does that change the sale price. Of course not. No more than a waiver changes the sale price
 
Speaking of the GSEs AVM, the quality of the data they have access to greatly exceeds the amount of info in the data used by every commercial AVM. They have access to actual appraisals which have been performed at one time or another on most of those properties. Often including the subject AND some or all of the comparable sales. Sometimes including the appraisals actually used for those specific transactions, other times being limited to prior appraisals.

If a property has 1 or 2 prior sales in their sales history and 2 or 3 or 5 previous refis then the GSEs most likely have at least one prior appraisal on file for that subject. So they're not 100% dependent upon an MLS entry or public records entry as is the case for the commercial AVMs. The weak spot in all AVMs is their use of unverified property attributes; it always has been. The GSE-archived appraisals solve that problem for them insofar as the properties that have already been through their pipeline in the past. That won't be all the properties that get used for comps but it will be most of them.

So the comparison here isn't between what a 1004 appraiser knows about a property vs what Zillow or Corelogic knows. The comparison is (at least potentially) between everything the other AVMs have access to + everything the GSE has previously extracted from the appraisers on that subject and on most or all of the comparables used in the appraisal.,
Have you ever looked inside CU? The CU adjusted values for their comps are all over the place. It is really not good.
 
The addresses and sales prices are not revealed for these properties, so how could anyone running statistics or analysis be able to tell anything wrt to that?
thanks for posting it though

I can not tell from the above what total 5 of loans are made using waivers-

I realize they are not used for high LTV and could care less about it other than that it sticks appraisres with valuing the higher risk properties and borrowers - then they'll claim loans using appraisals have a higher risk.
"Anyone" outside of the GSEs can't run any kind of analysis on any of their loans. There's nothing new about that.

WRT your job as an appraiser, you can verify your sales by picking up the phone or knocking on a door just like we started out doing back in the day. If you ever thought it necessary to know.

These waivers have already been in use for years now. They've already shown up in some of your datasets whether you saw them as such or not. You have already not noticed any difference in the pricing that's attributable to the low LTV loans. And judging from the complete lack of questions from you or any other appraisers on this forum about "Low LTV transactions appear to be overvalued", neither has anyone else noticed such a pattern.

In lieu of any indications to the contrary, the Occam's Razor reasoning might make sense.
 
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