No it isn't. A lake is a beneficial view. That "view" may be superior to a lakeshore lot, but the lakeside lot will probably sell higher.
That's why I contend that in the previous example you gave, that the value is in the "lakeside" location. The sale up the hill may have a nice view of the lake however, they are not on the lake.....
Location and view are separate. Location is a fact; view is an amenity based on the opinion of the typical buyer/owner. And both can be quantified in an appraisal.
I concur with this.
Let's pump the brakes for a second and get back to the OP.
When comparing properties in an appraisal, should a view add value? I reviewed an appraisal today on a property which has a spectacular view of San Francisco, including the city skyline and multiple bridges, from the entire first and second floors.
My bolds for emphasis. We have a Skyline View from "the entire" first and second floors. In my area....the market would contend that it adds value.
The comps, while otherwise comparable, have no views and are adjusted on square footage alone.
It is my opinion that all of the comps suck for the same reason...."none" of the sales utilized, according to the op, have any sort of view. I can't fathom if this is true, how this report got by underwriting. What appraiser worth their salt, would NOT include a sale or do an analysis of such a view as described in order to gauge the market reaction?
Me, I would go about the techniques described in the article I posted in post #90 to decipher the market reaction for "the view" and make an adjustment on the 1004, in the grid, in the view cell. No mentor, lender, underwriter, text, has informed me otherwise....
I mean.....why even have a section in the forms dedicated for the market reaction of views, if said views are included in the value of the land?
Anyways, as Tiffany said, we've been trolled....