Completed an appraisal for a reverse mortgage(not FHA).
The owners of public record are "John Doe" and "Mary Snow". The borrowers on the LOE and the occupants of the house are the parents of "John Doe" and "Mary Snow".
In the report I stated that "The Owners of Public Record are not the borrowers & the Assignment Type is not a Purchase."
Since the owners of public record are not the occupants, I checked the box that it was tenant occupied(for lack of any other pertinent choices).
The Deed refers to the parents as the Grantor and the children, "John Doe" and "Mary Snow" as the Grantees and calls them, Trustees of the G.R.S.R. Irrevocable Trust.
The client came back with:
1. "Please correct the report to owner occupied and remove the X from the tenant box. The Borrowers do occupy the subject, and they are the owners, Property is vested in their trust & even though they are not the trustees of the trust they are still the owners and owner box should be marked."
2. "Please revisit the legal description and remove the verbiage stating, "The Owners of Public Record are not the borrowers & the Assignment Type is not a Purchase" as well as the verbiage "Owners are the borrower's but since they are not the Owners of PR, Tenant is checked".
My duty is simply to report the Owners of Public Record and as per tax records the children "John Doe" and "Mary Snow" are those individuals. It would be misleading to report the owners of public record as anyone other than the children regardless of who is vested in whatever. And if the parents who are not the owners occupy the dwelling would they not be the tenant?
Please advise on a response to the client.
Thanks!