J Grant
Elite Member
- Joined
- Dec 9, 2003
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- Florida
"Bert Craytor, post: 2856793, member: 150785"]Most of the assertions you are making take sentences of context and give them a somewhat different context.
But lets look at Fannie Mae's definition of Market Value: https://www.fanniemae.com/content/guide/selling/b4/1.1/01.html
Now, as many often state on this forum, the actual conditions for this particular definition of Market Value actually don't exist in reality, at least in many cases.
That is the the point of an appraisal...the fact that in reality, many buyers are not well informed or well/advised or acting prudently etc..i's the REASON the appraisal creates the hypothetical/presumed "sale" as of the eff date in the SC approach, where the MV opinion is predicated on a set of typically motivated buyer and seller acting per the MV definition of well informed, well advised, price not affected by undue stimulus etc. How do you not "get that" as an SRA?
For example, many on this forum believe that many buyers are in fact not "well advised" and are not "knowledgeable". It is not practical to deal with such issues. So, in fact, "market value" is an implicit hypothetical condition that is in fact so common and obvious it doesn't need explicitly stating. Look at the phrase "most probable" - and now you are in the realm of probability and statistics, which puts you in the same methodology as dealing with any kind of prediction.
In fact, your opinion of value of Fannie Mae's Market Value as of any point in time (effective date), is nothing more than a prediction, guided by "data points and support". And if you want to support the concept of "probable", then you should have some mathematics behind you.
It's not a prediction, though I suppose in one sense you can call it that, it;s an opinion ( based on the SOW of the appraisal and result of SCA presumed "sale" of the subject as off effective date and according to MV definition used.
But lets look at Fannie Mae's definition of Market Value: https://www.fanniemae.com/content/guide/selling/b4/1.1/01.html
Now, as many often state on this forum, the actual conditions for this particular definition of Market Value actually don't exist in reality, at least in many cases.
That is the the point of an appraisal...the fact that in reality, many buyers are not well informed or well/advised or acting prudently etc..i's the REASON the appraisal creates the hypothetical/presumed "sale" as of the eff date in the SC approach, where the MV opinion is predicated on a set of typically motivated buyer and seller acting per the MV definition of well informed, well advised, price not affected by undue stimulus etc. How do you not "get that" as an SRA?
For example, many on this forum believe that many buyers are in fact not "well advised" and are not "knowledgeable". It is not practical to deal with such issues. So, in fact, "market value" is an implicit hypothetical condition that is in fact so common and obvious it doesn't need explicitly stating. Look at the phrase "most probable" - and now you are in the realm of probability and statistics, which puts you in the same methodology as dealing with any kind of prediction.
In fact, your opinion of value of Fannie Mae's Market Value as of any point in time (effective date), is nothing more than a prediction, guided by "data points and support". And if you want to support the concept of "probable", then you should have some mathematics behind you.
It's not a prediction, though I suppose in one sense you can call it that, it;s an opinion ( based on the SOW of the appraisal and result of SCA presumed "sale" of the subject as off effective date and according to MV definition used.