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Incomplete purchase contract provided

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It's a drag about the coincidence on the $725. Now you look malleable.

If it were me I'd stick to the $725 because, according to you, it was just a coincidence and that was your real opinion.

This was your post, CAnative, which came across as flippant and condesecending...

I asked the poster some questions about the comps, that might help them decide why the 725k was the most supportable (or if it was not the most supportable, allow them grounds to change it if other information is avail to support a higher price)

Either way, they are going to have to defend their value beyond saying it was a coincidence or happened to come in at 725k...I wish they would have phrased it diffently, perhaps they did not appraise to SC price but no support was offered in the post other than that it happened to match...maybe it is a great appraisal and value and price just happened to match. But if they can offer better support for their value it would help ...
 
I wasn't being flippant. It is a drag about the coincidence because it will be perceived as appraising to the contract.
 
Coincidence, that's my story and I'm sticking to it... until they send the revised coincidental number.
 
Mr Rex deserves the best dry humor award! You could write for South Park on the side ! ( I mean that as a compliment)
 
Final counter? Did you have a ratified contract or not? If the contract that you were provided with, including counteroffers, was signed by all parties, then you had a completed contract, and a counter-offer is not appropriate, it should have been an addendum to the contract. Either your contract wasn't fully executed or one of the agents is clueless as to contract law. I'm not sure that a signed counter-offer after a fully executed contract would be enforceable, but the a judge would probably go with the intent of the parties, not the name of the document.

I've seen this happen way too many times - a lot of agents are clueless.
 
I guess it comes down to how you reconciled. If you had a reasonable range of probable value from say $715-760k and you came in at a point value of $725 because the subject contract fit the conditions of market value, therefore you placed final point value with that weight, then had you known the contract had been $740k, you would have set the point at $740k because it's well within a reasonable range of most probable value. It would be no different if you found out that comp one that you placed weight on sold for $740 instead of $725.
 
I guess it comes down to how you reconciled. If you had a reasonable range of probable value from say $715-760k and you came in at a point value of $725 because the subject contract fit the conditions of market value, therefore you placed final point value with that weight, then had you known the contract had been $740k, you would have set the point at $740k because it's well within a reasonable range of most probable value. It would be no different if you found out that comp one that you placed weight on sold for $740 instead of $725.

Sorry, but this is just appraising to the contract amount. There has to be more reasoning and support then the contract itself. 715-760 k is a moderately large range, so why opine at one point or the low or high end instead of another? It is not like placing weight on comp one, because what appraiser places 100% of weight on one comp, and appraises exactly to the price that comp sold for?

Also, the subject did not sell, so we can't weight it the same way we weight a sold comp. An appraiser does not have a strong incentive to come in at the price of any particular comp, the way they might have to come in at the price of subject contract. So that's a problem right there...

Besides that, look at the range. 715k-760k. 725k is the lower end, and 740k is the mid to higher end. So besides the contract, why would an appraiser come in at one or the other?

725k if the market is flat or declining, or if the pendings and listings are lower in price and/or long marketing times or large inventory. 725k if shorts and REO's are present in market. 725k if the subject is not the most upgraded or largest, and therefore is more similar to the comps on the lower end of pricing.

740k if the market is rising or stable with short marketing times, low inventory, listings at higher prices . 740k if the subject is one of the larger or upgraded homes, and more similar to the comps that sold on the higher end, few or no REO or short sales present.

The above are supportable reasons to come in at one price or another besides the contract itself.
 
Sorry, but this is just appraising to the contract amount. There has to be more reasoning and support then the contract itself. 715-760 k is a moderately large range, so why opine at one point or the low or high end instead of another?

No, it's not. Appraising to the contract would ignore the market support and cherry pick comps to support the contract. I'm talking when the market supports a range and the house falls within that range, you then lean on the what the market participants have decided on what that exact house is worth. If I were doing a refi and comp one was an identical match and fell within a reasonable range of the other comps, I would probable land on that sale price. And if the comp was a different price, my point would be different because my data is now different. Same with the subject. (and 5.9% range is not a large range)

It's a shame that we have appraisers with your frame of mind because OP would probably be better off holding to his value....not because the change of data wouldn't make a difference, but because of the hassle of dealing with reviewers that have your frame of mind....that can't grasp the fact that the subject participants mean something.
 
No, it's not. Appraising to the contract would ignore the market support and cherry pick comps to support the contract. I'm talking when the market supports a range and the house falls within that range, you then lean on the what the market participants have decided on what that exact house is worth.

You take into consideration what the parties have decided the house is worth, but you don't lean all that heavily on it (imo). Because the buyer thinks it's worth 730k, for example, as long as they can borrow 650k of that.

It is our client's money at stake, not the borrower's. Therefore, it is not all about what the parties think it is worth, it is about what WE think it's worth, in MV terms, for our client to rely on.

The contract matters, but other factors matter as well....a case by case basis on each report.

With a wide spread of adjusted values, there is less crediblity behind the fact that the SC price falls within a range, so heck, might as well opine exactly what the SC is. (and we always have to consider the unadjusted prices)

A contact price of 720k, within an adjusted range of 700k -735k, is a tight range of support. But a sales price of 720k in a range of 680k to 740 k, that's so broad it's meaningless as to why specifically 720k is the value.

If I were doing a refi and comp one was an identical match and fell within a reasonable range of the other comps, I would probable land on that sale price. And if the comp was a different price, my point would be different because my data is now different. Same with the subject. (and 5.9% range is not a large range)

If it were that simple, yes, but you are comparing the subject to itself, and it is not a closed sale. It's a pending, and you would never base 100% of your point value on a pending sale.

It's a shame that we have appraisers with your frame of mind because OP would probably be better off holding to his value....not because the change of data wouldn't make a difference, but because of the hassle of dealing with reviewers that have your frame of mind....that can't grasp the fact that the subject participants mean something.[/quote]

I grasp that the subject participants mean something, and the contract means something, and needs consideration, and perhaps even strong consideration. But there has to be value indicators and specifc support among the comps and market conditions for a point value besides the contract itself, even when the price falls within a range.

Is your subject one of the nicest, most upgraded homes, or the one with a great view? Then it should be closest to the best feature, highest price comp, and support opining the high range of value.

But if the subject is ordinary, or inferior, and closer in value to mid or lower priced comps, then where is the support for the high value, apart from the contract itself? .
 
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A $725,000. market-indicated Opinion of Value communicated to the Client is suddenly worth $740,000. a week after the OMV is established, supported, and communicated to the Client and the assignment is completed.

The posted reason - the Contract Price suddenly changed from the original CP of $725,000. to $740,000. Apparently no supplemental comparables were provided by any of the parties involved. No written dispute re the appraisal report's description of the subject site or improvements, or the comparables utilized therein was forwarded by the AMC to the Appraiser.

No additional information citing any other reason for the change in the Contract Price was communicated to the Appraiser other than the buyer and seller decided to "haggle" AFTER the appraisal report was delivered to the client???.

Per OP "I've got lender's and agents contacting me with questions however I don't want to speak with anyone that I am not supposed to speak with outside of my lender/client." What questions? The AMC should require the parties involved to put their info/questions in writing and forward it to you for consideration and written reply. The result may, or may not have any impact on the OMV communicated a week earlier.

"So the question is if I am provided with this final counter of $740k by my client, can I change the appraised value based upon this new information?" What new information?? (see comment above).


IMO, without the answers to the questions above further commentary is whistling in the dark speculation.
 
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