"Due to a lack of appropriate |
data the cost approach lacks credibility to the degree that it could be a liability to the appraiser, and/or misleading to the lender/client and |
by extension the borrower and investor therefore to include the cost approach could be considered a USPAP violation." |
I agree "if". But J's answer focuses strictly on the offers for the subject and saying that the fact that there are multiple offers for the subject shows that no negative adjustment is needed. Doesn't provide the answer to "what is the difference between the subject and similar sized homes in the area without the functional problem". Unless you can justify the offers on the subject demonstrate that difference. Remember the OP said the subject is the only LIVABLE home in the neighborhood below $200K. Which would indicate to me that other LIVABLE homes in the neighborhood sell for more than $200KI think J's answer is a good one. "If" a thorough search was conducted expanding the parameters of time and distance to decipher that the subject truly is an anomaly. Because if someone follows, and does find that elusive sale.... the cream will rise to the top.
1- If it's not for GSE, you do not have to use ANSI.Doing an appraisal for a conventional purchase. SF home, 672 SF built in 1900. The only kitchen and bath are below grade in the basement. No, I do not have any comps going back 2 years with this situation. Due to FNMA/ANSI I cannot include those rooms in room count or GLA. Soooo, my grid shows 4/2/0 for the subject room count.
The kitchen and bath are 350 sf total of the 672 sf basement. I dont want to make adjustments for the comps baths on the room count line and also a functional utility adjustment for the issue with the kitchen and bath in the basement as this would be "double dipping". I am basing my functional adjustment on ???? Since I have no matched pairs to formulate an adjustment. Am I over thinking this??
It's up to the OP to determine why other homes sold for more and subjects sold for less if they use superior comps. I believe I indicated that in a prior post here. I can't do the appraisal for them in that regard, and neither can anyone else here. The present offers for the subject indicate that for the typically motivated buyers for this property, the utility of the bath and kitchen being below grade is market accepted by them. That is a critical factor in appraising an oddball. I assume it had short DOM as well. That sets it apart from oddball houses that meet market resistance.I agree "if". But J's answer focuses strictly on the offers for the subject and saying that the fact that there are multiple offers for the subject shows that no negative adjustment is needed. Doesn't provide the answer to "what is the difference between the subject and similar sized homes in the area without the functional problem". Unless you can justify the offers on the subject demonstrate that difference. Remember the OP said the subject is the only LIVABLE home in the neighborhood below $200K. Which would indicate to me that other LIVABLE homes in the neighborhood sell for more than $200K
By that logic, every property that is owned passes the test. Not much of a jump to concluding that they offerred $x for the property so that is the value.The present offers for the subject indicate that for the typically motivated buyers for this property, the utility of the bath and kitchen being below grade is market accepted by them.
Good lords, do you lie in wait like a snake waiting to pounce? Seems like it. BTW I believe I have a higher rate of valuing houses below SC when warranted than most-By that logic, every property that is owned passes the test. Not much of a jump to concluding that they offerred $x for the property so that is the value.
How idiotic.You recently attacked other posters on another thread, so it is not just me.