Mr. Duck - (or anyone)
Why is it ever necessary for a person other than the appraiser to apply the signature of the appraiser to an appraisal report? I believe people who fancy themselves as being willing to listen to their fellow man's issues and concerns in business will finally acknowledge, even reluctantly, that there are cases where this should be allowed. But I would hope everyone would agree the instances where it is truly legitimate are rare.
But when is it legitimate to lie to your client? My guess is you would say never, but, of course, that will invite the "what-is-sex?" bunch to ask "what constitutes a lie?"
When an individual affixes a signature, or a mark to a document where the purpose of said signature/mark is (by law or convention) clearly intended to serve as evidence of the approval of another person, or willingly allows their signature/mark to be affixed by another person without disclosing what has actually happened to the client, has a lie been told?
I've read your posts and I hear you. Bottom line for me? I firmly believe with no reservations the authors of the phrase "sole personal control of affixing the signature" knew exactly what they meant when they wrote it. Specifically, they knew exactly what the term "control" meant as it applied to digital signatures.
But more importantly, they knew the answer to the question in the paragraph above; "has a lie been told?" And...they gave a specific example of correct procedure in pre-9/2007 Q&A. Sorry, I don't have text in front of me. But if my memory serves me it said "yes, it is permissible for another individual to sign for the appraiser as long as it is clear." And the example given of "clear" was something similar to "by MP for Duck."
So, now USPAP has opened the door to the debate regarding what is meant by the term "control." What about the issue of whether the client deserves to know another person other than the appraiser has affixed the signature of the appraiser?
MP