- Joined
- Jan 15, 2002
- Professional Status
- Certified General Appraiser
- State
- California
It's premature to assume that every appraiser needs to verify the valuation element of every comparable they use in every assignment they perform. To even get to such a mandatory presumption for all appraisal assignments we would first need to get an idea of whether or not the allegation that (prevailing price trends are driven by non-appraised sales transactions) is even true, let alone common.Another lets dump the burden on the appraiser to find out, ( which in many cases is not possible or very time-consuming) rather than demand Fannie and Freddie make the info readily available and especially so to the MLS.
Does the eCRV have the info readily online? Where do you access the document filed by the title company?
Checking each sale on it would be far more time-consuming than if it showed up on MS they way Cash, VA, FHA conventional do,
A Waiver is part of conventional financing, so it would need its own disclosure.
Even if a particular waiver-backed transaction goes off at a higher price - which can also occur with the all-cash or appraiser-backed transaction - that doesn't automatically lead to them being in sufficient quantity or of sufficient effect on the local market as to drive the pricing. Only the brokers act blind to all other sales besides the one they like. Appraisers are supposed to seek the prevailing trend among the many, not cherry pick for the one.
Does the pricing for all-cash and low LTV transactions significantly vary from the pricing for the high-LTV transactions? That's a question any appraiser can answer by simply looking at the reported loan amounts - no heroic measures or undue effort by the appraisers is even necessary. I've used those transactions in my SC since I first started appraising and - so far - I have never noticed the difference in the transaction amounts. Perhaps your lived experience (as the intersectional dogma asserts) is different.
That question isn't exactly the same as to whether or not the AVM-valued transactions at the high LTVs - which so far haven't even occurred - is going to drive the pricing ever-upward. And never-downward. Which the assumption that the GSE AVM will always or almost always come in higher than the appraisals instead of lower than the appraisers is another unsupported allegation. Maybe that assumption is true, maybe it isn't. We don't know. But Fannie/Freddie know. Or at least they can know if they are running their AVM in every deal including the ones with an appraisal.
But separating the high-LTV transactions from all the rest where the buyer is putting in more of their own money - at least it's a start. And you don't need to even wait 5 minutes to start looking at that. If you believe this off-label usage of appraisals is an effective way to prevent price creep in the general RE market then you can start your analysis this morning without waiting for other parties to simply give you the proof you seek.
If you're that sure about your assumption then there's no reason to delay. Get to it.
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